55 practice sets · Page 1 of 3
If t=0.b=s=v=1 and m=Find the value of l. l=length of the cutting stroke in mm, b=width of the work in mm, s=feed in mm, v=cutting speed in mm/minute, m=the ratio between return time to cutting time and t=machining time in minute.
53.33
none of the mentioned
13.33
26.66
Correct Answer: D — 26.66
Explanation:
From the formula, t= lb(m+1) / (1000vs). We can get the value of l by putting all the values in the given equation.
If l=t=s=v=3 and m=Find the value of b. l=length of the cutting stroke in mm, b=width of the work in mm, s=feed in mm, v=cutting speed in mm/minute, m=the ratio between return time to cutting time and t=machining time in minute.
100
1000
10000
none of the mentioned
Correct Answer: B — 1000
Explanation:
From the formula, t= lb(m+1) / (1000vs). We can get the value of b by putting all mentioned values in the given equation.
If n=2 (rpm of bull wheel), l=3 mm (length of cutting stroke) and m=5 (ratio of return time to cutting time), find the value of cutting speed in mm/minute.
0.18
0.15
0.36
0.3
Correct Answer: C — 0.36
Explanation:
C.S. = nl (1+m) / 100. Here l=3mm, n=2, m=5. So by putting these values in the above equation we can easily get the answer as 0.36.
If l=b=s=m=2 and t=Find the value of v. l=length of the cutting stroke in mm, b=width of the work in mm, s=feed in mm, v=cutting speed in mm/minute, m=the ratio between return time to cutting time and t=machining time in minute.
none of the mentioned
0.12
0.03
0.06
Correct Answer: D — 0.06
Explanation:
From the formula, t= lb(m+1) / (1000vs). From this equation, we can easily calculate the value of v by putting all mentioned values.
If l=b=s=v=3 and m=Find the value of t. l=length of the cutting stroke in mm, b=width of the work in mm, s=feed in mm, v=cutting speed in mm/minute, m=the ratio between return time to cutting time and t=machining time in minute.
0.025
0.0125
0.00625
none of the mentioned
Correct Answer: B — 0.0125
Explanation:
From the formula, t= lb(m+1) / (1000vs), we can easily calculate the value of t by putting all these values in given equations.
If l=b=s=v=2 and t=2, find the value of m. (l=length of cutting stroke mm, b=width of work mm, s=feed mm, v=cutting speed mm/minute, m=ratio of return to cutting time, t=machining time minutes)
2
12
none of the mentioned
5
Correct Answer: C — none of the mentioned
Explanation:
C.S. = nl (1+m) / 100 and value of n should be 10 by putting all parameters in above equation.
If l=b=s=v=2 and t=Find the value of m. l=length of the cutting stroke in mm, b=width of the work in mm, s=feed in mm, v=cutting speed in mm/minute, m=the ratio between return time to cutting time and t=machining time in minute.
2
10
none of the mentioned
5
Correct Answer: C — none of the mentioned
Explanation:
From the formula, t= lb(m+1) / (1000vs) , m should be 4.
If n=4 (rpm of bull wheel), cs=3 mm/minute (cutting speed) and m=5 (ratio of return time to cutting time), find the value of length of cutting stroke (l) in mm.
12.5
6.24
50
25
Correct Answer: A — 12.5
Explanation:
C.S. = nl (1+m) / 100. Here, n=4, cs=3, m=5 and l can be found out by putting these values in above equation.
If n=2 (rpm of bull wheel), l=2.5 mm (length of cutting stroke) and cutting speed=0.5 mm/minute, find the value of m (ratio of return time to cutting time).
9
99
10
100
Correct Answer: A — 9
Explanation:
C.S. = nl (1+m) / 100. Here, n=2, l=2.5, cs=0.5 and m can be found by putting these values in the above equation.
If l=b=5, t=8, v=3 and m=5, find the value of s. (l=length of cutting stroke mm, b=width of work mm, s=feed mm, v=cutting speed mm/minute, m=ratio of return to cutting time, t=machining time minutes)
none of the mentioned
0.0125
0.025
0.00625
Correct Answer: D — 0.00625
Explanation:
From the formula, t= lb(m+1) / (1000vs). By putting all given values, we can easily get answer as 0.00625.
If the length of the cutting stroke ismm and time required by the cutting stroke is 5 second, then find the value of cutting speed in mm/second.
4
2
none of the mentioned
0.5
Correct Answer: B — 2
Explanation:
C.S.=length / time. Here, length is 10 mm and time is 5 second. So by dividing 10 by 5 we can easily get the answer as 2.
In downmilling, clamping difficulty is not high.
True
False
Correct Answer: A — True
Explanation:
In downmilling, forces are enough on job to press down so no concern for clamping difficulty.
More depth of cut can be used in ______milling process.
downmilling
none of the mentioned
can’t say anything
upmilling
Correct Answer: A — downmilling
Explanation:
This is the advantage of downmilling process. The cutting force vary from maximum to zero in this process.
Smooth cut can be obtained in downmilling process.
False
True
Correct Answer: B — True
Explanation:
Use of cutting fluid is simple. It can produce smooth cut. This is the advantage of this process.
The cutting action can be done from both sides of the table to finish the job. This is the advantage of _____ process.
none of the mentioned
can’t say anything
downmilling
upmilling
Correct Answer: C — downmilling
Explanation:
This is the advantage of downmilling process. Its cutter turn are in similar direction.
In upmilling, the surface milled appears to be slightly wavy.
False
True
Correct Answer: B — True
Explanation:
This is the disadvantage of upmilling. But its surface finish can be improved. Cutting fluid used by it is little bit complicated.
The cutting force is directed _____ and this tends to lift the work from the fixture in upmilling.
upward
none of the mentioned
downward
can’t say anything
Correct Answer: A — upward
Explanation:
This is the disadvantage of this process. The extra clamping forces may be required to fix the job on the table.
Machine vibration isn’t there in upmilling process.
False
True
Correct Answer: A — False
Explanation:
This is the disadvantage of this process. The upmilling is feasible.
The upmilling operation is not safe.
False
True
Correct Answer: A — False
Explanation:
This is false. The upmilling opertion is safe. This is the benefit of this process.
The thickness of the chip in upmilling is _______ in when the cut terminates.
zero
minimum
none of the mentioned
maximum
Correct Answer: D — maximum
Explanation:
The cutting force vary from zero to maximum in up milling. At the end due to maximum force chip thickness is high.
